im really interested in using a tryptamine 4-hydroxylase inhibitor within the substrate. would i be correct in assuming that if you theoretically inhibited the psilocin step, then the enzymes responsible for psilocybin would not convert the DMT into anything? this would be 10x easier than even attempting to isolate enzymes,putting them into vectors and expressing them inside E. coli. i have already found an inhibitor discussed in a peer reviewed paper.

Fenclonine - Wikipedia .as well as the chemical p-ethynylphenylalanine

this is medicine that acts to inhibit the creation of serotonin by inhibiting tryptophan hydroxlase, and with serotonin being a tryptamine , is it safe to assume that tryptophan hydroxylase is the enzyme responsible and not tryptamine hydroxylase. what im asking is, are those the same thing?

this could also prove or disprove the theory of DMT being a intermediary product.

edit: i also just found this 4-Chloro-DL-phenylalanine readily available online. its also a tryptophan hydroxylase inhibitor. i would really like to hear some feedback on this. i am quite excited.