I wanted to post this in FAQ, but cannot start a new topic there?
Anyway, I often see people confidently posting with the opinion that you don't actually need to convert freebase dmt to its salt form to be active orally or nasally--is that true? As I researched it, the dmt needs to be in salt form to pass into the blood of your nasal membrane or stomach.
It's hard arguing with other people's experiences; how could they have had any effect from eating or snorting freebase? Then they go recommending others to snort freebase and I can just see the chain of wastefulness. I feel it's my responsibility to correct them but could anyone more knowledgeable explain again why we convert to salt form for those administrations?
Anyway, I often see people confidently posting with the opinion that you don't actually need to convert freebase dmt to its salt form to be active orally or nasally--is that true? As I researched it, the dmt needs to be in salt form to pass into the blood of your nasal membrane or stomach.
It's hard arguing with other people's experiences; how could they have had any effect from eating or snorting freebase? Then they go recommending others to snort freebase and I can just see the chain of wastefulness. I feel it's my responsibility to correct them but could anyone more knowledgeable explain again why we convert to salt form for those administrations?
