no worries.I haven't gotten a chance to read all of this, but one thing that came to mind as I read the first two paragraphs is how we look at things through a binary lens: understanding vs misunderstanding. Would we have more understanding of the matter at hand if we looked at this binary set as two extremes of a spectrum?
I think that while understanding and misunderstanding are part of knowledge, both of them are extreme points of the spectrum defined by knowledge.
But that is not static in my understanding.
I think that the way how knowledge is able to be interpreted depends on the content of the knowledge.
That means that the knowledge can be binary, spectrum or even both, which is defined by the knowledge itself.
This inverts the principle/question of how something can be interpreted.
But the question I have now is if I do not evade the question with a too generic answer "it depends".
I have some arguments for it but I try to keep it short.
(Only haveing arguments, does not mean that they would be plausible tho)
Yes I agree, that is something which was proved when I tried to add the rule, that context matters.For me these rules dictate an understanding of the incomprehensible. If one changes the rules, one changes the understanding. Which implies that the incomprehensible was never understood in the first place.
One should not cling to these rules as set-in-stone, because then an understanding is merely an overstanding. Overstanding, as in the unwillingness to expend the energy to understand something.
It could also happen that the ruleset will always be unfinished or the semantics if all or any or a combination and order of the rules is important in order to identify something.
As possible thought, I am thinking about if the rules itself depend on the content of the knowledge.
Meaning that the rules could be created dynamically based on its content.
Similar to how knowledge could be interpreted (binary/spectrum/..).
But the rules are unknown of something which is unknow itself.
Makeing it undefinable like this from my understanding.
To move away from rules:
And I am unsure if it would be possible to define a formula, like kant did with his kantian imperative, to identify knowledge.
Yes I agree, that would imply the neccessarity to have rules as well for the incomprehensible.Currently, as in with my current set-of-rules, I have come to the conclusion that our Mind simply is unable to understand the incomprehensible. That we are observing a reflection of our own consciousness and are trying to make sense out of it with our Mind.
Or If none of the rules grab, then something is unknow.
But that would not solve the root cause.
Some of my thoughts:
We can never know something which is unknown for us in every possible aspects.
We can not know something whos concept/abstraction/name/intend/meaning/.. is unknown for us.
But when the conceptual knowledge is there:
I think we can only know what we do not know without being able to know it currently in detail.
As example, I know that I do not know how to build bridges.
When I would know how to build bridges in detail, it would not be unknown in detail anymore.
Side note: How well (spectrum) I would be able to build bridges would define how stable the bridge would be.
Interesting idea.This leads me to another idea. What if understanding (and misunderstanding) is more of a felt sense than anything else, considering that the internal relative experience is the same when we misunderstand something that we claim to understand and when we claim to understand something we likely do understand.
What about the felt sense is the result or effect of mis-understanding.
The question I have now is if mis-understanding can occur without experiencing this sense.


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