I have brought this topic up before and have even brought it up on other forums but since people here tend to be quite intelligent I want to discuss it on this forum:
When someone is very thirsty and walking through the desert and they see an image of a water which turns out to be not real we call that a mirage or a hallucination. When someone is what society now calls psychotic hears voices or talks to imaginary friends that are very real to the individual experiencing the situation yet we call that experience a delusion.
On the contrary in the past many such experiences were taken seriously in certain cases, buddha, jesus, moses, mohammad are all people who's mystical experiences were taken very seriously. Of course there was battles over whether a saints vision was genuine but that really was just society trying to make sense of these experiences and fit them in within its frame work. The same goes for cultures who were using psychoactive substances to aid in inducing trance or altered states, it was taken seriously.
So whats real and whats not? Why do those who use psychedelic substances regard there experience as more genuine then that of a psychotic? I tend to believe its simply because they like the experience and it often satisfies some deep subconsiouss desires for a creator a spirit etc. The experience on a psychedelic drug is different then that of someone in meditation or that of someone undergoing psychosis but really all 3 are essentially doing the same type of thing to the brain.
Lets bring up the brain. I'd like to make the point that most signals being sent between neurons are pretty much the same the only difference being their intensity and connections the neuron makes. Different neurons also have different shapes and different receptors and transmitters but the signals are basically the same. The only difference between a drug, brain damage induced psyhosis, meditation is that they happen to effect a different part of the brain in a different way. A 5-HT agonist will increase the intensity of signals in certain parts of the brain where the drug has distributed itself too. Many 5-HT agonists can have different effects based on what subtype of receptor they hit, how long they persist before being metabolized, how strongly they bind, where in the brain they end up all play a role in causing different effects. The same can be said for certain types of psychosis paranoid schizophrenics seem to have a different brain profile then lets say someone with bipolar or perhaps other types of schizophrenia. When someone is in deep mediation certain parts of the brain get activated and start to project out imagines from the subconsciouss or imagination. The only difference seems to be what part of the brain is being effect and in what manner. But so far its all seems to be going on in the brain.
So if we are to accept that the experience of losing perception of ones body, traveling through some tunnel and emerging in a palace of white light after smoking something like DMT as real why do we reject the experience of a psychotic or the mirage in the desert? Now I think the experience of losing connection to the body can be explained in neurochemical reductionist terms because the part of the brain doing the interpreting isn't communicating with the part of the brain taking in signals from the outside world. This is testable!
Of course we always can bring up the question well what is consciousness and what is reality but those are tougher questions and if we need to define them then we can try but what I would most like to discuss is if all mystical experiences and altered states can be reduced to a simple disruption of neurochemical events then we must seriously consider how legit are they? I understand the psychological value of these substances but I don't want to focus on that end but more on the actual so called spiritual experience. Why is it spiritual? Why is it not just a disruption of the brains functioning?
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When someone is very thirsty and walking through the desert and they see an image of a water which turns out to be not real we call that a mirage or a hallucination. When someone is what society now calls psychotic hears voices or talks to imaginary friends that are very real to the individual experiencing the situation yet we call that experience a delusion.
On the contrary in the past many such experiences were taken seriously in certain cases, buddha, jesus, moses, mohammad are all people who's mystical experiences were taken very seriously. Of course there was battles over whether a saints vision was genuine but that really was just society trying to make sense of these experiences and fit them in within its frame work. The same goes for cultures who were using psychoactive substances to aid in inducing trance or altered states, it was taken seriously.
So whats real and whats not? Why do those who use psychedelic substances regard there experience as more genuine then that of a psychotic? I tend to believe its simply because they like the experience and it often satisfies some deep subconsiouss desires for a creator a spirit etc. The experience on a psychedelic drug is different then that of someone in meditation or that of someone undergoing psychosis but really all 3 are essentially doing the same type of thing to the brain.
Lets bring up the brain. I'd like to make the point that most signals being sent between neurons are pretty much the same the only difference being their intensity and connections the neuron makes. Different neurons also have different shapes and different receptors and transmitters but the signals are basically the same. The only difference between a drug, brain damage induced psyhosis, meditation is that they happen to effect a different part of the brain in a different way. A 5-HT agonist will increase the intensity of signals in certain parts of the brain where the drug has distributed itself too. Many 5-HT agonists can have different effects based on what subtype of receptor they hit, how long they persist before being metabolized, how strongly they bind, where in the brain they end up all play a role in causing different effects. The same can be said for certain types of psychosis paranoid schizophrenics seem to have a different brain profile then lets say someone with bipolar or perhaps other types of schizophrenia. When someone is in deep mediation certain parts of the brain get activated and start to project out imagines from the subconsciouss or imagination. The only difference seems to be what part of the brain is being effect and in what manner. But so far its all seems to be going on in the brain.
So if we are to accept that the experience of losing perception of ones body, traveling through some tunnel and emerging in a palace of white light after smoking something like DMT as real why do we reject the experience of a psychotic or the mirage in the desert? Now I think the experience of losing connection to the body can be explained in neurochemical reductionist terms because the part of the brain doing the interpreting isn't communicating with the part of the brain taking in signals from the outside world. This is testable!
Of course we always can bring up the question well what is consciousness and what is reality but those are tougher questions and if we need to define them then we can try but what I would most like to discuss is if all mystical experiences and altered states can be reduced to a simple disruption of neurochemical events then we must seriously consider how legit are they? I understand the psychological value of these substances but I don't want to focus on that end but more on the actual so called spiritual experience. Why is it spiritual? Why is it not just a disruption of the brains functioning?
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