Gondrio
Rising Star
unansweredquestions said:im sorry to take up the role of the typical antagonist, but i just cant resist.
so you'v stated the bible is the word of god and perfectly logical; god is eternal, infinite, transcendent, all loving, just and so on.
so lets start with the obvious and adress this logical bible.
the inconsistant triad anyone? God is omnibenevolent, omnipotent, and omniscient. so why is there evil? these three charectoristics do not logicaly allow it. god loves all creations, knows the pain that will be caused and has the power to stop them.
You are basing this question off the Bible, but your assumption that "god loves all creations" finds no basis within the pages of scripture.
Romans 9:13 (God speaking) - "As it is written, “Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated."
Romans 9:11-12 Paul says, "Though they [Jacob and Esau] were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad – in order that God’s purpose of election might continue, not because of works but because of his call – she was told, ‘The older will serve the younger.’" And when Paul raised the question in verse 14, "Is there injustice on God's part?" He says, no, and quotes Moses (in verse 15): "I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion." And when he raises the question in verse 19, "Why does he still find fault? For who can resist his will?" He answers in verse 21, "Has the potter no right over the clay, to make out of the same lump one vessel for honored use and another for dishonorable use?"
Romans 9:16 - "So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy."
Romans 9:17-18 - "For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, ‘For this very purpose I have raised you up, that I might show my power in you, and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth.’ 18 So then he has mercy on whomever he wills, and he hardens whomever he wills." It was this last phrase that raised the objection. If he hardens whomever he wills – if God has the right to decree who will become rebellious – then "Why does he still find fault? For who can resist his will?"
Paul has portrayed God as absolutely sovereign. He decides who will believe and undeservingly be saved and who will rebel and deservingly perish. Before they were born or had done anything good or evil, he loves Jacob and gives Esau over to wickedness and destruction (Rom 9:11-13). He is free and unconstrained from influences outside himself when he decrees who will receive mercy and who will not (Rom 9:15-18 ).
Why is this right for him to do? He has given answers in verses 14-18 and now he gives two more. I will summarize them very briefly and do very little defending on my own. I will let them stand and read one very powerful summary quotation from Jonathan Edwards (which I quoted in the above post), that has helped me see the enormous implications of this passage.
First Argument: The Qualitative Difference Between Potter and Clay Makes Foolish the Criticism of the Clay
First Paul argues that a potter has the authority and right over the clay to make a wide range of vessels from the same lump. Verse 21: "Has the potter no right over the clay, to make out of the same lump one vessel for honored use and another for dishonorable use?" The argument here is basically: Potters know more than clay about what is wise to make. I say this because Paul asks in verse 20, "Who are you, O man, [that is, a mere man, a mere piece of clay] to answer back to God? Will what is molded say to its molder, ‘Why have you made me like this?’" In other words, the argument is simply this: we humans don’t know enough to elevate our values and our standards and our insights to the point of judging God and saying: You used your sovereignty in an unwise, unrighteous way. That’s argument number one. There is an infinite, qualitative difference between potter and clay that makes it foolish and wrong for clay to criticize the choices of the potter.
Second Argument: The Purpose Is to Display God’s Glory for the Vessels of Mercy
The second argument goes deeper. I think it is the deepest argument in all the Bible for why God is right to unconditionally choose whom to love and whom to hate, whom to show mercy and whom to harden, whom to make a vessel for honor and whom to make a vessel for dishonor. The deepest reason this is right, Paul says, is that it displays most fully the glory of God, including his wrath against sin and his power in judgment, so that the vessels of mercy can know him most completely and worship him with the greatest intensity for all eternity.
I will read it to you from verses 22-23 and you decide if you think that is a fair restatement of Paul’s argument. "What if God, desiring to show his wrath and to make known his power, has endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction, 23 in order to make known the riches of his glory for vessels of mercy, which he has prepared beforehand for glory."
There are three purposes mentioned in Verses 22-23 and the first two serve the third. First (v. 22) God acts to show his wrath against sin – that he is a holy God who hates sin. Second (v. 22) God acts to show his power in judgment. Third, (v. 23) all of this self-revelation is to make known the riches of his glory (including his holy wrath and mighty power) for the vessels of mercy. In other words, the final and deepest argument Paul gives for why God acts in sovereign freedom is that this way of acting displays most fully the glory of God, including his wrath against sin and his power in judgment, so that the vessels of mercy can know him most completely and worship him with the greatest intensity for all eternity.
Edwards on Why God Ordained That Evil Be
"It is a proper and excellent thing for infinite glory to shine forth; and for the same reason, it is proper that the shining forth of God’s glory should be complete; that is, that all parts of his glory should shine forth, that every beauty should be proportionably effulgent [=radiant], that the beholder may have a proper notion of God. It is not proper that one glory should be exceedingly manifested, and another not at all. . .
Thus it is necessary, that God’s awful majesty, his authority and dreadful greatness, justice, and holiness, should be manifested. But this could not be, unless sin and punishment had been decreed; so that the shining forth of God’s glory would be very imperfect, both because these parts of divine glory would not shine forth as the others do, and also the glory of his goodness, love, and holiness would be faint without them; nay, they could scarcely shine forth at all.
If it were not right that God should decree and permit and punish sin, there could be no manifestation of God’s holiness in hatred of sin, or in showing any preference, in his providence, of godliness before it. There would be no manifestation of God’s grace or true goodness, if there was no sin to be pardoned, no misery to be saved from. How much happiness soever he bestowed, his goodness would not be so much prized and admired, and the sense of it not so great . . .
So evil is necessary, in order to the highest happiness of the creature, and the completeness of that communication of God, for which he made the world; because the creature’s happiness consists in the knowledge of God, and the sense of his love. And if the knowledge of him be imperfect, the happiness of the creature must be proportionably imperfect. (Jonathan Edwards, "Concerning the Divine Decrees," in The Works of Jonathan Edwards (Edinburgh: Banner of Truth, 1974), p. 528 )
So I ask, "Is God less glorious because he ordained that there be real evil and real guilt and just punishment?" Paul’s answer is, no, just the opposite. God’s glory will shine the more truly and brightly for having decreed and governed this universe as we know it. God must be for Himself in order to be for us.
unansweredquestions said:God ordered abraham to sacrifice his son, yes, in hindsight we know god was testing. but god is all knowing, he didnt need to test at all; what was he finding out?
Good question. When I say that the Bible is "consistent" and "philosophically profound", I am not just making that up. Abraham was called by God to sacrifice his son on Mount Moriah, in Jerusalem, but why?
Genesis 22:7-9 - "And Isaac said to his father Abraham, “My father!” And he said, “Here am I, my son.” He said, “Behold, the fire and the wood, but where is the lamb for a burnt offering?” Abraham said, “God will provide for himself the lamb for a burnt offering, my son.” So they went both of them together.
When Abraham said this, he was speaking under inspiration of the Holy spirit. He did not yet know that many years later, God would "provide for himself the lamb for the burnt offering"... Gods own Son, on that same mountain in Jerusalem! (Ephesians 5:2)
unansweredquestions said:have you read judges 19:1? the story goes, a guest comes to an old mans house, evil men come to the door and demand the guest for the night. the old man replies
No, my friends, don’t be so vile. Since this man is my guest, don’t do this disgraceful thing. 24 Look, here is my virgin daughter, and his concubine. I will bring them out to you now, and you can use them and do to them whatever you wish. But to this man, don’t do such a disgraceful thing.”
seriously, this is the word of god, why would he say that and what was he teaching?
As Lot offered his daughters to protect his guests (Gen 19:8 ), the host offers his daughter to protect the Levite. The author does not comment on the morality of this offer, but the whole story is presented as a final illustration of the evil consequences of forsaking Gods rule and doing what is right in ones own eyes.